MYP Last-Minute Cheat Sheet

Real questions · Real answers · All 5 subjects

⚗️ Chemistry
⚡ Physics
📐 Maths
📝 English
🏛️ History
B

Q6 — Experimental Design (Criterion B)

16 marks · Appears EVERY year · Most important question

16 marks100%
All 5 elements must be present: Variables · Equipment · Data · Method · Safety
QUESTION TYPE (M23): Design an investigation to determine how surface area of salt affects the time for ice to melt.
RQ: How does the surface area of salt affect the time taken for ice to melt?
IV: Surface area of salt (whole crystals / coarsely crushed / finely ground)
DV: Time for 50g ice to fully melt (seconds, stopwatch)
CVs: Mass of salt (5g each), type of salt (NaCl), mass of ice (50g), initial temperature (−5°C)
Equipment: Balance (±0.01g), stopwatch, pestle & mortar, thermometer, 250cm³ beaker, 3 sizes of salt
Data: 3 repeats at each IV level, calculate mean, discard outliers
Method: (1) Weigh 50g ice. (2) Weigh 5g salt, crush to required size. (3) Place ice in beaker. (4) Add salt, start stopwatch. (5) Stop when ice fully melted. (6) Record time. (7) Repeat 3×. (8) Change surface area and repeat.
Safety: Handle crushed ice with tongs (frostbite risk); wear gloves when handling chemical salts.
QUESTION TYPE (M21): Design an investigation to compare the energy released by different fuels.
IV: Type of fuel (coffee logs, wood, coal, peat)
DV: Temperature rise of 200cm³ water (°C) measured with thermometer
CVs: Mass of fuel (5g), volume of water (200cm³), distance between flame and beaker (5cm)
Safety: Fire extinguisher nearby; use tongs to handle burning fuel; conduct in well-ventilated area.
D

Q8 — Criterion D Multi-perspective Evaluation

12–13 marks · Environmental / Economic / Individual

12–13 marks100%
M23 Q8: Discuss the advantages of reclaiming materials from an environmental, economic, and individual perspective.
ENVIRONMENTAL (4 marks): Reclaiming materials reduces the volume of waste sent to landfill, decreasing soil and groundwater contamination. This preserves ecosystems and reduces greenhouse gas emissions from decomposing waste. It also reduces the need for raw material extraction, preserving natural habitats.

ECONOMIC (4 marks): Reclaiming materials creates employment in the recycling and processing industry. It reduces the cost of raw material extraction and import, lowering production costs. Governments save on waste management infrastructure costs.

INDIVIDUAL (4 marks): Individuals benefit from lower product prices when manufacturers use cheaper recycled materials. Communities near reclamation centres gain employment. Reduced pollution improves public health outcomes, reducing healthcare costs for individuals.

APPRAISAL: Overall, reclaiming materials is most beneficial environmentally as the long-term reduction in pollution outweighs short-term economic setup costs, making it a net positive across all perspectives.
M21 Q8: Compare water treatment technologies — evaluate economic, environmental and social advantages/disadvantages.
ENVIRONMENTAL: Filtration removes sediment without chemicals → less secondary water pollution vs. chlorination which adds chemical byproducts.
ECONOMIC: CCU has high initial infrastructure cost but reduces long-term carbon credit costs. Sand filtration is cheap but cannot remove dissolved contaminants.
SOCIAL: Access to clean water improves public health; reduces waterborne disease rates; reduces burden on healthcare systems.
Q1

Q1–Q2 — Atomic Structure & Periodic Table

~8 marks · Appears every year

~8 marks100%
M21 Q1: How many outer electrons does magnesium have?
A: 2 outer electrons (Group 2)
M21 Q1: In which group and period is silicon found?
A: Group 4, Period 3
M23 Q2: State the group and period of Gallium (Ga) and Arsenic (As).
Ga: Group 3, Period 4  |  As: Group 5, Period 4
M21 Q1: Why do noble gases not react?
A: They already have a full outer electron shell (e.g. He has 2, Ne has 8) — they do not need to gain or lose electrons.
M21 Q1: Why does hydrogen share electrons in bonding?
A: Hydrogen shares electrons to achieve the noble gas configuration of helium (2 outer electrons).
M23 Q2: Explain why carbon forms 4 covalent bonds.
A: Carbon has 4 outer electrons and shares 4 electrons with other atoms to achieve a full outer shell of 8 (noble gas configuration).
M21 Q2: What is the definition of isotopes?
A: Atoms of the same element with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons (and therefore different mass numbers).
Q3

Q3 — Rates of Reaction, Catalysts & Moles

~6 marks · Catalyst definition always tested

~6 marks100%
M23 Q3 / M21 Q2: What is a catalyst? (definition)
A: A catalyst speeds up a chemical reaction by lowering the activation energy. It is not used up in the reaction and does not appear in the overall equation.
M21 Q2: Why does increasing temperature increase the rate of reaction?
A: Higher temperature → particles have more kinetic energy → move faster → collide more frequently AND with more energy → more successful collisions per second → faster rate.
M23 Q1: Why does increasing the surface area of a reactant increase the rate of reaction?
A: Smaller pieces have a greater surface area → more particles are exposed → more frequent collisions between reactant particles → faster rate of reaction.
M23 Q3: The reaction is CH₄ + 2H₂O → CO₂ + 3H₂. Calculate moles of H₂ produced from 8kg of methane.
Molar mass CH₄ = 12 + 4(1) = 16 g/mol
Moles of CH₄ = 8000 ÷ 16 = 500 mol
Ratio: 1 mol CH₄ → 3 mol H₂
Moles of H₂ = 500 × 3 = 1500 mol
Q1

Q1 — Combustion, Equations & Organic Groups

~5 marks

~5 marks100%
M23 Q1: Balance the combustion of propane: C₃H₈ + O₂ →
A: C₃H₈ + 5O₂ → 3CO₂ + 4H₂O
M21 Q3: Balance the combustion of pentane: C₅H₁₂ + O₂ →
A: C₅H₁₂ + 8O₂ → 5CO₂ + 6H₂O
M23 Q1: Identify the functional group of an alcohol and a carboxylic acid.
Alcohol: −OH  |  Carboxylic acid: −COOH
M23 Q1: Is combustion exothermic or endothermic? How do you know?
A: Exothermic — energy is released to the surroundings; temperature of surroundings increases; reaction produces heat and light.
Q4

Q4–Q5 — States of Matter & IV/DV Questions

~8 marks

~8 marks100%
M23 Q4: Describe the arrangement of particles in a liquid.
A: Irregular arrangement of particles that are fairly close together (≥9 molecules in diagram); particles can move past each other; no fixed shape but fixed volume.
M23 Q4: Convert 55 μm to metres.
A: 55 × 10⁻⁶ m = 5.5 × 10⁻⁵ m
M23 Q5: State the IV, DV, and 2 CVs for an investigation into how surface area of salt affects ice melt time.
IV: Surface area of salt (varied by crushing)
DV: Time for ice to melt (seconds)
CVs: Mass of salt (5g); type of salt (NaCl); mass of ice (50g)
M23 Q5: Which salt works at −45°C and why is it chosen over chloride salts?
A: Potassium acetate — it is the only salt that remains effective below −45°C AND it is non-chloride, so it does not corrode metal infrastructure (e.g. aircraft, bridges).
M21 Q4: Why is the value 30.0 written with a decimal place?
A: To indicate 3 significant figures — showing the measurement was made to that level of precision.
B

Q5 — Experimental Design (Criterion B)

14 marks · Appears EVERY year

14 marks100%
M23 Q5: Design an investigation to determine how temperature affects the circumference of a balloon.
RQ: How does temperature affect the circumference of a balloon?
IV: Temperature of water bath (20, 30, 40, 50, 60°C)
DV: Circumference of balloon (cm, measured with string + ruler)
CVs: Initial volume of air, type of balloon, atmospheric pressure, time at each temperature (2 min)
Equipment: Water bath/beaker, thermometer, string, ruler, kettle, ice
Data: 5 temperatures × 3 repeats, calculate mean
Method: (1) Inflate balloon to 20cm circumference. (2) Set water bath to 20°C. (3) Submerge balloon 2 min. (4) Measure circumference. (5) Record. (6) Repeat 3×. (7) Increase temperature, repeat.
Safety: Use tongs with hot water; wear safety goggles.
Q1

Q1 — Mechanics: Speed, Energy, Power, Current

~10 marks · Appears every year

~10 marks100%
M23 Q1: A horse travels 16 km in 4 hours. Calculate its speed.
Speed = 16 ÷ 4 = 4 km/h
M23 Q1: Calculate the weight of a 350 kg horse and a 510 kg horse. (g = 10 N/kg)
350 kg: 350 × 10 = 3500 N  |  510 kg: 510 × 10 = 5100 N
M23 Q1: Calculate work done if a 1200 N force moves through 51 m.
Work done = F × d = 1200 × 51 = 61,200 J
M23 Q1: Calculate power if 61,200 J is done in 5.5 seconds.
Power = 61,200 ÷ 5.5 = 11,127 W ≈ 11.1 kW
M23 Q1: Calculate current if power = 7150 W, voltage = 1100 V.
I = P ÷ V = 7150 ÷ 1100 = 6.5 A
M23 Q1: State the energy chain for a horse pulling a load uphill.
Chemical PE → Kinetic Energy → Gravitational Potential Energy
Q2

Q2 — Waves & EM Spectrum

~8 marks · Appears every year

~8 marks100%
M23 Q2: Calculate the frequency of visible light with wavelength 7.5×10⁻⁷ m. (c = 3×10⁸ m/s)
f = v ÷ λ = (3×10⁸) ÷ (7.5×10⁻⁷) = 4×10¹⁴ Hz
M23 Q2: State THREE properties of red light compared to other visible colours.
Red light has the: longest wavelength / lowest frequency / lowest refractive index (refracted least during dispersion)
M23 Q2: How does infrared differ from visible light?
Infrared has a longer wavelength AND lower frequency than visible light. It is positioned just below red in the EM spectrum.
M23 Q2: What is dispersion?
A: White light splits into its component colours (spectrum) when passing through a prism because different wavelengths refract by different amounts — longer wavelengths refract less.
EM order (low→high frequency): Radio → Microwave → Infrared → Visible → UV → X-ray → Gamma
Q3

Q3 — Nuclear Physics & Radioactive Decay

8 marks · Appears every year

8 marks100%
M23 Q3: Carbon-14 is written as ¹⁴₆C. State the number of protons and neutrons.
Protons = 6 (atomic number)  |  Neutrons = 14 − 6 = 8
M23 Q3: Define isotopes.
A: Atoms of the same element with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, giving different mass numbers.
M23 Q3: Distinguish between gamma rays and X-rays.
Gamma: emitted FROM the nucleus.  |  X-ray: produced when inner electrons are displaced and interact with the nucleus. Different origin, similar properties.
M23 Q3: Write the equation for alpha decay of U-238.
²³⁸U → ²³⁴Th + ⁴He(α)
Mass number −4; Atomic number −2
M23 Q3: Write the equation for beta decay of Th-234.
²³⁴Th → ²³⁴Pa + ⁰β
Mass number same; Atomic number +1
Q4

Q4 — Gas Laws, Pressure & Particle Theory

8 marks

8 marks100%
M23 Q4: Explain why the balloon expands when placed in hot water.
A: Temperature ↑ → kinetic energy of air particles ↑ → particles move faster → more frequent and harder collisions with the balloon wall → balloon expands outward (at constant pressure).
M23 Q4: State the relationship between pressure and volume of a gas (Boyle's Law).
A: At constant temperature, pressure and volume are inversely proportional: P↑ → V↓. Formula: P₁V₁ = P₂V₂
Q6

Q6 — Newton's Laws

~8 marks · Action-reaction · F=ma

~8 marks100%
M23 Q6: Identify the action-reaction pair for a balloon rocket.
Action: Balloon pushes air backwards. Reaction: Air pushes balloon forwards. (Newton's 3rd Law — equal, opposite, different objects)
M23 Q6: State Newton's 2nd Law.
F = ma — Force (N) = mass (kg) × acceleration (m/s²). A larger force produces a larger acceleration for the same mass.
M23 Q6: The circumference of the balloon is C. What does the data suggest about the relationship between C³ and distance?
A: C³ is proportional to distance — as C³ increases, distance increases proportionally (straight line through origin on graph).
D

Q8 — Criterion D Technology Evaluation

13–21 marks · Individual advantages/disadvantages

13–21 marks100%
M23 Q8: Discuss advantages and disadvantages of location tracking technology for individuals.
ADVANTAGES:
• Parents can locate lost children → increased child safety
• Emergency services can find injured hikers → faster rescue response
• Helps individuals navigate unfamiliar areas → personal safety

DISADVANTAGES:
• Invasion of personal privacy → psychological stress and feeling surveilled
• Location data can be hacked → puts individuals at risk of crime
• Employers can track workers → reduces personal autonomy and dignity
Template for ALL Criterion D answers:
State advantage/disadvantage → explain WHY (mechanism) → link to stakeholder → give specific example → evaluate significance
Q7

Q7 — Statistics: Mean, Scatter Plot, Power Model

17 marks · Biggest maths question · Every year

17 marks100%
M21 Q7a: From the data: grades 0.75(×4), 0.76(×3), 0.77(×5), 0.78(×6), 0.79(×1), 0.80(×1). Find mode and median.
Mode = 0.78 (highest frequency = 6)  |  Median = 0.77 (middle value of 20 data points)
M21 Q7b: Calculate the weighted mean from the same data.
Mean = (4×0.75 + 3×0.76 + 5×0.77 + 6×0.78 + 1×0.79 + 1×0.80) ÷ 20
= (3.00 + 2.28 + 3.85 + 4.68 + 0.79 + 0.80) ÷ 20 = 15.40 ÷ 20 = 0.77
M21 Q7c: Rules for drawing a line of best fit on a scatter plot.
✓ Line must be within the marked zone
✓ At least 2 points above AND 2 points below the line
✓ Cover the full domain [5.5, 10.5]
✗ Never horizontal · ✗ Never more than one line · ✗ Gradient must be correct direction
M21 Q7e: Given w = 24r⁻⁰·⁷⁷, find w when r = 0.77 (from mean).
w = 24 × (0.77)⁻⁰·⁷⁷ → use calculator → ≈ 0.69 (2 sf)
M21 Q7f: Comment on the relationship AND justify the accuracy of your prediction.
Relationship: As sleeping hours increase, probability of winning increases (positive relationship).
Accuracy (Level 2): The prediction is inaccurate because the line of best fit is an approximation AND the relationship between reaction time and sleeping cannot be linear beyond the data range given.
Q2

Q1–Q2 — Probability: Trees & Venn Diagrams

~9 marks · Without replacement always tested

~9 marks100%
M23 Q2: A bag has 10 Dark (D) and 15 White (W) balls (total 25). Two drawn without replacement. Find P(D then D).
P(D∩D) = 10/25 × 9/24 = 90/600 = 3/20 = 0.15
M23 Q2c: Find P(at least one W) i.e. P(not both D).
P(not DD) = 1 − 3/20 = 17/20 = 0.85
M23 Q2d: Three balls drawn without replacement. Find P(exactly 2D and 1W in any order).
P(DDW) in any order = 3 × (10/25 × 9/24 × 15/23) = 3 × (1350/13800) = 27/92 ≈ 0.29
M21 Q1: U={1–10}, A=multiples of 2, B=multiples of 3. Two numbers drawn from A∩B' without replacement. Find the probability.
A∩B' = {2, 4, 8, 10} → 4 elements
P(two from A∩B') = 4/10 × 3/9 = 12/90 = 2/15
Q4

Q3–Q4 — Trigonometry & 3D Volume

11 marks · Sine/cosine rule + volumes

11 marks100%
M23 Q4a: In a right-angle triangle, the base is 24÷2=12 and the angle at the top is 55°. Find side a.
tan55 = a/12 → a = 12 × tan55 = 12 × 1.428 = 17.1
M23 Q4b: Using the pyramid with base 24×24 and slant side 17.1, find the perpendicular height h.
= 17.1² − 12² = 292.41 − 144 = 148.41 → h = 12.18
M23 Q4c: Calculate the volume of the pyramid (base 24×24, height 12.18).
V = ⅓ × 24 × 24 × 12.18 = ⅓ × 576 × 12.18 = 2339 (nearest integer)
M23 Q4d: Each length is increased by 10% (scale factor 1.1). Find the percentage increase in volume.
Volume scale factor = 1.1³ = 1.331 → increase = 33.1%
M23 Q3d: In triangle, BC/sin82 = 8/sin70. Calculate BC, then find the perimeter if other sides total 17.1.
BC = (8 × sin82) / sin70 = 8.4  |  Perimeter = 17.1 + 8.4 = 25.5
M21 Q5b: Balloon radius = 2.8cm. A cone has radius 2.86cm. Find cone height h when Vol(sphere) = Vol(cone).
(4/3)π(2.8)³ = (1/3)π(2.86)²h
4(2.8)³ = (2.86)²h → h = 4(21.952)/8.1796 = h ≈ 10.7
Q6

Q6 — Trigonometric Modelling (Cosine Function)

11 marks · Amplitude, period, substitution, solving

11 marks100%
M21 full question: B = −0.5cos(15t) + 36.5 where B = body temperature (°C), t = hours after midnight
M21 Q6a: During what times is the temperature below 36.5°C?
A: Between 6pm (18:00) and 6am the next day — approximately 8–10 hours within this interval.
M21 Q6b: Find the time of maximum and minimum temperature.
Maximum at t=12 → 12:00 (noon)  |  Minimum at t=24 → 24:00 (midnight)
M21 Q6c: State the amplitude and period.
Amplitude = 0.5  |  Period = 360 ÷ 15 = 24 hours
M21 Q6d: State the maximum and minimum temperatures.
Max = 36.5 + 0.5 = 37°C  |  Min = 36.5 − 0.5 = 36°C
M21 Q6e: Find B when t = 7.25 hours (7:15am), give answer to 1dp.
B = −0.5cos(15 × 7.25) + 36.5 = −0.5cos(108.75°) + 36.5 = −0.5(−0.323) + 36.5 = 36.7°C
M21 Q6g: Solve for t when B = 36.5 (using −0.5cos15t + 36.5 = 36.5).
−0.5cos15t = 0 → cos15t = 0
15t = 90 → t = 6... but using the model: t = 4 hours → 4:00am
Q3

Q3/Q6 — Quadratic Functions & Modelling

10 marks · Find parameter, solve, distance formula

10 marks100%
M23 Q6a: Given E = a(n−10)² + 80. The graph passes through (0,120). Find a.
Sub (0,120): 120 = a(0−10)² + 80 → 40 = 100a → a = 2/5 = 0.4
M23 Q6b: Find E when n = 2.
E = 0.4(2−10)² + 80 = 0.4(64) + 80 = 25.6 + 80 = 105.6
M23 Q6d: Solve for n when E = 90.
90 = 0.4(10−n)² + 80 → 10 = 0.4(10−n)² → (10−n)² = 25 → 10−n = ±5
Positive value: n = 5
M21 Q3b: Solve x² − 4x − 5 = 0 and find coordinates of intersection points A and B.
(x−5)(x+1) = 0 → x = 5 or x = −1
A = (−1, 2)  |  B = (5, 14)
M21 Q3c: Find the distance AB.
AB = √((5−(−1))² + (14−2)²) = √(36 + 144) = √180 = 6√5 ≈ 13.4
Q8

Q8 — Sequences & Patterns

5 marks · Same answer appeared in BOTH M23 and M21

5 marks100%
The general rule L = 2n+2 appeared identically in BOTH May 2023 and May 2021.
M23 Q8a / M21 Q8a: The sequence is 4, 6, 8, 10, ... Place the next two terms.
12, 14
M23 Q8b: Describe TWO patterns for the longer base (L values: 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14...).
Even numbers (divisible by 2)
Arithmetic sequence with common difference 2
✗ Do NOT say "increases by 2" without the correct term (needs "arithmetic" or "constant difference")
M23 Q8c: Write the general rule for L in terms of n.
L = 2n + 2   OR   L = 2(n+1)
Must be algebraic notation — words are NOT accepted.
1e

Task 1e — Compare & Contrast Essay (Crit A+B)

20 marks · Most important analytical piece

20 marks100%
M23 Task 1e QUESTION: Compare and contrast how the author and filmmaker present creative expression in the written extract (Ximena the weaver) and the film clip (Sleeping Beauty ballet).
ESSAY STRUCTURE:
Intro: Both texts explore creative expression as a fundamental human need — however, while the written text uses intimate characterization, the film uses visual spectacle and sound to convey this theme.

Para 1 (Written text, technique 1): The author characterizes Ximena through emotive language — "her fingers knew the colours before her mind did" — portraying creative expression as instinctive and deeply personal. This suggests that artisanship is inseparable from identity.

Para 2 (Film, equivalent): In contrast, the filmmaker uses choreography and orchestral music to externalize creative expression as a communal, public act. The synchronized movements of the corps de ballet and the swelling strings create a sense of shared artistic experience, unlike the solitary intimacy of the written text.

Para 3 (Written, technique 2): The personification "The tapestry winks silver in the moonlight" endows the artwork with a life of its own, suggesting that creative work transcends the artist.

Para 4 (Film, technique 2): Similarly, the close-up cinematography on the dancer's gestures allows the audience to interpret meaning in the movement, giving the creative act an independent communicative power beyond the performer.

Conclusion: Both creators present creative expression as transformative — but the author uses intimacy and interiority, while the filmmaker uses scale and spectacle to achieve this effect.
CRITERION A — Level 5 Checklist
  • ✓ Name ≥3 literary/visual techniques per text
  • ✓ Quote or reference specific textual evidence for each
  • ✓ Explain the EFFECT of each technique (don't just name it)
  • ✓ Directly COMPARE and CONTRAST — use "similarly", "in contrast", "unlike"
  • ✓ Link everything back to the THEME (creative expression)
1a

Task 1a–1d — Short Analysis Questions

~10 marks · Characterization · Technique · Film

~10 marks100%
M23 Q1a (3 marks): Analyze how the writer presents the character of Ximena (the weaver).
The writer presents Ximena as passionate and deeply connected to her craft through the use of emotive language and characterization. The phrase "her fingers knew the colours before her mind did" implies that weaving is an instinctive, almost spiritual act for her, suggesting her identity is inseparable from her art. Furthermore, her resistance to outside pressure characterizes her as strong-willed, as she continues weaving despite social expectations. The cumulative effect is a portrait of a woman for whom creative expression is not merely a skill but a fundamental aspect of selfhood.
M23 Q1b (2 marks): Comment on the significance of the line: "The tapestry winks silver in the moonlight."
The writer uses personification ("winks") to give the tapestry a living quality, as if it communicates independently of its creator. This is significant because it suggests that creative work can transcend the artist — the artwork takes on its own identity and continues to exist and communicate beyond the moment of creation.
M23 Q1c (2 marks): Describe the effect of using both animation and music in the film clip about the Sleeping Beauty ballet.
The animation clarifies complex choreographic techniques by visually highlighting specific movements that might be lost in live performance. The music simultaneously sets the emotional mood, creating an immersive experience that connects the audience to the ballet's narrative, making the creative process accessible to a wider audience.
T2

Task 2 — Literary Text Production (Crit C+D)

20 marks · Imaginative creative writing

20 marks100%
M23 Task 2 QUESTION: Write a scene in which a character travels through time to arrive in a mysterious place. Consider: purpose, characterization, setting, mood, and point of view.
MODEL OPENING (demonstrates techniques):

The air tasted wrong. That was the first thing Amara noticed — not the cold that gnawed at her fingertips, not the silence pressing against her eardrums like wet cotton, but the air. It tasted of copper and old wood and something she had no name for.

She hadn't moved. She was certain of that. Her feet were still planted on the linoleum of the school corridor — except the linoleum was gone, replaced by uneven stone that tilted under her heels. The fluorescent lights overhead had vanished. In their place, a pale grey sky pressed down through gaps in a roof that wasn't quite there.

Wherever this was, it had been abandoned long before she arrived.
Techniques demonstrated
  • Show don't tell: "The air tasted wrong" not "she was scared"
  • In medias res: starts in the middle of the experience
  • All five senses: taste, touch, hearing, sight
  • Varied sentence length: short punchy → longer flowing
  • Italics for interior thought; third person limited POV
T3

Task 3 — Non-literary Text Production (Crit B+C+D)

30 marks · Highest mark-value task

30 marks100%
M23 Task 3 QUESTION: Create a script for a video advertisement for a student organization that builds intercultural connections.
MODEL SCRIPT EXTRACT:

[SCENE 1 — Wide shot of school hallway. Students of different backgrounds pass each other without speaking.]

NARRATOR (V/O): Every day, we walk past a hundred different worlds.

[CUT TO: Close-up of a student eating alone, textbooks piled high. She looks up as laughter from another table drifts over.]

STUDENT 1: (looking directly at camera) I've been here two years. I still don't know my neighbours.

[MUSIC FADES IN — light, upbeat]

NARRATOR (V/O): Until now. Introducing Bridge — where every culture is a doorway.

[MONTAGE: Students sharing food, laughing over language barriers, teaching each other dances]

STUDENT 2: I taught Maria three words in Tagalog. She taught me how to make tamales. We're still friends.

NARRATOR (V/O): Join Bridge. Meet your world.
Criterion B: Script format MUST include — scene directions in [brackets], SPEAKER NAME: in capitals, camera directions, clear structure.
Q4

Q4 — Research Design: RQ, Justify, Source

12 marks · Q4a (2) + Q4b (4) + Q4c (2) + Q4d (4)

12 marks100%
M23 Q4a (2 marks): Formulate a clear and focused RQ on national identity.
Model: "To what extent was Hitler's use of nationalist propaganda significant in his rise to power between 1928 and 1933?"
RQ STARTERS — use these:
• "To what extent was [factor] significant in causing [event]?"
• "How significant was the role of [group/individual] in [outcome]?"
• "How did [event/factor] affect [group/society/country] between [dates]?"
• "Why did [event] occur in [place] during [time period]?"
M23 Q4b (4 marks): Justify how your RQ is relevant to the Statement of Inquiry: "Individuals and groups use their understanding of history to shape their cultural identity."
My RQ asks how Hitler used nationalist propaganda in his rise to power, which directly relates to this Statement of Inquiry because it examines how an individual (Hitler) used a historical narrative — the myth of German greatness and the "stab in the back" — to shape the cultural identity of a nation. This is relevant because Hitler's manipulation of historical memory created a new collective identity for Germany, demonstrating the concept of causality (propaganda caused identity formation) and perspective (different groups interpreted Germany's history differently). The RQ is focused and historically meaningful as it addresses a specific time period and measurable factor.
M23 Q4c (2 marks): Outline one useful source for investigating Hitler's use of nationalism.
Source: A speech by Adolf Hitler delivered at a Nazi Party rally in Nuremberg in September 1932, in which he addresses the theme of German national identity and the need for national unity under strong leadership.
M23 Q4d (4 marks): Explain why this source is useful for your investigation.
Origin & purpose: As a primary source created by Hitler himself for a political audience, the speech directly reveals the nationalist language and emotional techniques he used to appeal to the German public in the lead-up to his election as Chancellor.

Value: It provides first-hand evidence of the specific themes — national humiliation, German destiny, anti-Marxism — that Hitler emphasised, which is directly relevant to my investigation of his rise to power.

Limitation: However, as propaganda created to persuade, it is inherently biased — Hitler would present his ideology in the most favourable light, omitting opposition voices or contradictory evidence.
Q5

Q5 — Biography: Individual Changed by Historical Event

Criterion A (6 marks) + format marks

6+ marks100%
Must focus on DAILY LIFE changes — not general historical statements. Must use accurate historical facts with specific dates.
M23 Q5 QUESTION: Explain how the daily life of an UNKNOWN individual changed because of ONE significant event. (Not Argentina)
Marco Conti — Italian Farmer, Tuscany (1896–1956)

Before the event: Marco was a 20-year-old subsistence farmer in rural Tuscany. He rose at dawn to tend his family's wheat fields, returned home for a midday meal with his family, and spent evenings repairing tools. He had never left his province.

The event — WWI and its aftermath: Marco was conscripted into the Italian Army in 1916 and served in the brutal trench warfare of the Isonzo Front. After 12 battles, he returned in 1918 suffering severe psychological trauma. Italy's economic collapse meant his family had lost the farm to debt.

How daily life changed:
• Unable to farm, Marco moved to Milan seeking factory work — his daily routine shifted from outdoor agricultural work to 12-hour factory shifts in dangerous conditions.
• In 1921, he joined Mussolini's Blackshirts for a steady wage; his daily life now involved attending political rallies, enforcing political violence on opponents, and reporting "anti-fascist" neighbours.
• He participated in the March on Rome in October 1922, having transformed from a farmer to an active agent of political repression.

Long-term: By the 1930s, Marco was embedded in the fascist system. In 1935 he was sent to fight in the Ethiopian campaign — his entire adult life shaped by that single moment of conscription in 1916.
Q2

Q2 — Evaluate Investigation Process

8 marks · Strengths (3) + Limitations (3) + Appraisal (2)

8 marks100%
M23 Q2: The investigation researched Independence Day in Argentina. The student used primary + secondary sources, Argentine and international perspectives, but had off-topic sub-questions. Evaluate this investigation.
STRENGTH 1 (3 marks): The student used both primary and secondary sources, such as historical documents and academic analyses, which strengthens the reliability of evidence. Primary sources provide direct evidence of events, while secondary sources offer historical interpretation — using both creates a more comprehensive investigation.

STRENGTH 2: Incorporating both Argentine and international perspectives reduces national bias and allows the student to evaluate the event from multiple viewpoints, strengthening the credibility of their conclusions.

LIMITATION 1 (3 marks): The sub-questions include some that are off-topic and not directly related to the main Research Question about Independence Day. This means the investigation collected irrelevant information, making the conclusions less focused and potentially leading to an inaccurate answer to the RQ.

LIMITATION 2: Comparing Argentina to other countries' independence movements — while interesting — may have diverted research time and depth away from the core focus.

APPRAISAL (2 marks): Overall, the investigation was only partially effective. While the use of diverse sources and perspectives is commendable and strengthens the reliability of the evidence, the inclusion of off-topic sub-questions undermines the focus of the investigation, meaning the final conclusion may not fully answer the original Research Question.
Q3

Q3 — How a Group Caused Independence

4 marks · Chain of causation · NOT Argentina

4 marks100%
M23 Q3: Explain how ONE group caused their country's independence. (Not Argentina)
North American Colonists — USA Independence:

North American colonists caused their independence through a deliberate process of political resistance and armed conflict. When Britain imposed the Stamp Act (1765) and Townshend Acts (1767) — taxes without colonial representation — colonists protested through boycotts and the Boston Tea Party (1773). The Continental Congress (1774) formally demanded representation, and after British military crackdowns, the colonists declared independence on 4 July 1776. Following military victory at Yorktown (1781), Britain recognised American independence in the Treaty of Paris (1783). It was therefore the colonists' coordinated political and military resistance to British taxation and governance that directly caused their independence.
Alternative answer — Haitian Independence (1804):
Enslaved people in the French colony of Saint-Domingue caused Haiti's independence by rising up in 1791 under Toussaint Louverture, inspired by the principles of the French Revolution. After defeating French, British, and Spanish military forces over 13 years of guerrilla warfare, Haiti declared independence on 1 January 1804, becoming the first Black republic and the first nation to achieve independence through a slave revolution.
Q1

Q1 — Source Analysis with Historical Concept

2 marks · Template answer

2 marks100%
M23 Q1: Source A shows a decree from the Spanish king asserting authority over Latin American colonies (written 1808 after Napoleon's invasion). Outline how this exemplifies ONE historical concept.
Concept: GOVERNANCE
The source exemplifies governance because the Spanish king's decree demonstrates the exercise of royal authority and political control over colonial territories. The assertion of continued sovereignty even after Napoleon's invasion reveals how colonial governance was maintained through top-down legal declarations, illustrating how power was structured and exercised across the Spanish Empire in the Americas.
Six Concepts — Know These
  • Causality — one event caused another
  • Governance — how power/authority is exercised
  • Conflict — clash between groups/nations
  • Interdependence — groups rely on each other
  • Civilization — development of society/culture
  • Globalization — increasing global connection
Template: "The source exemplifies [CONCEPT] because [specific detail] shows/demonstrates [effect]. This illustrates how [historical explanation linking detail to concept]."